CCNA 2 (v5.03 + v6.0) Chapter 4 Exam Answers for Switched Networks

CCNA 2 (v5.03 + v6.0) Chapter 4 Exam Answers for Switched Networks

Read Chapter wise CCNA 2 Exam Answers (v5.1 + v6.0)

1. A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)

• lower bandwidth requirements
• reduced cost for equipment and user training
• easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability*
• less required equipment to provide the same performance levels
• simpler deployment for additional switch equipment*

2. What is a collapsed core in a network design?

• a combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers
• a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers*
• a combination of the functionality of the access and core layers
• a combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers

3. What is a definition of a two-tier LAN network design?

• access and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the distribution layer on a separate tier
• access and distribution layers collapsed into one tier, and the core layer on a separate tier
• distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the access layer on a separate tier*
• access, distribution, and core layers collapsed into one tier, with a separate backbone layer

4. What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture distribution layer?

• acting as a backbone
• aggregating all the campus blocks
• aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries*
• providing access to end user devices

5. Which two previously independent technologies should a network administrator attempt to combine after choosing to upgrade to a converged network infrastructure? (Choose two.)

• user data traffic*
• VoIP phone traffic*
• scanners and printers
• mobile cell phone traffic
• electrical system

6. A local law firm is redesigning the company network so that all 20 employees can be connected to a LAN and to the Internet. The law firm would prefer a low cost and easy solution for the project. What type of switch should be selected?

• fixed configuration*
• modular configuration
• stackable configuration
• StackPower
• StackWise

7. What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.)

• lower cost per switch
• increased scalability*
• lower forwarding rates
• need for fewer power outlets*
• availability of multiple ports for bandwidth aggregation

8. Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

• destination IP address
• source IP address
• destination MAC address
• source MAC address*

9. Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

• firewall
• hub
• router
• switch*

10. What two criteria are used by a Cisco LAN switch to decide how to forward Ethernet frames? (Choose two.)

• path cost
• egress port
• ingress port*
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address*

11. Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?​

• to Fa0/1 only​
• to Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 only
• to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only*
• to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4
• to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only​

12. What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?

• forwards data based on logical addressing
• duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
• learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
• determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address*

13. Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.
• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.*
• SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.
• SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

14. A small publishing company has a network design such that when a broadcast is sent on the LAN, 200 devices receive the transmitted broadcast. How can the network administrator reduce the number of devices that receive broadcast traffic?

• Add more switches so that fewer devices are on a particular switch.
• Replace the switches with switches that have more ports per switch. This will allow more devices on a particular switch.
• Segment the LAN into smaller LANs and route between them.*
• Replace at least half of the switches with hubs to reduce the size of the broadcast domain.

15. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are displayed?

• 1
• 4
• 8*
• 16
• 55

16. Which solution would help a college alleviate network congestion due to collisions?

• a firewall that connects to two Internet providers
• a high port density switch*
• a router with two Ethernet ports
• a router with three Ethernet ports

17. Which network device can serve as a boundary to divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain?

• router*
• Ethernet bridge
• Ethernet hub
• access point

18. What is the destination address in the header of a broadcast frame?

• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 11-11-11-11-11-11
• FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF*

19. Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected?

• The broadcast domain expands to all switches.*
• One collision domain exists per switch.
• Frame collisions increase on the segments connecting the switches.
• There is one broadcast domain and one collision domain per switch.

20. What does the term “port density” represent for an Ethernet switch?

• the memory space that is allocated to each switch port
• the number of available ports*
• the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port
• the speed of each port

21. What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

• to create fewer collision domains
• to enhance user bandwidth*
• to create more broadcast domains
• to eliminate virtual circuits
• to isolate traffic between segments*
• to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

22. Fill in the blank.
A converged network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.

23. Match the borderless switched network guideline description to the principle. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
allows intelligent traffic load sharing by using all network resources -> flexibility
facilitates understanding the role of each device at every tier, simplifies deployment, operation, management, and reduces fault domains at every tier -> hierarchical
allows seamless network expansion and integrated service enablement on an on-demand basis -> modularity
satisfies user expectations for keeping the network always on -> resiliency

24. Match the functions to the corresponding layers. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
Access layer
[+] represents the network edge
[+] provides network access to the user
Distribution layer
[#] implements network access policy
[#] establishes Layer 3 routing boundaries
Core layer
[*] provides high-speed backbone connectivity
[*] functions as an aggregator for all the campus blocks

25. Match the forwarding characteristic to its type. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
cut-throught:
+appropriate for high perfomance computing applications
+forwarding process can be begin after receiving the destination address
+may forward invalid frames
store-and-forward:
#error checking before forwarding
#forwarding process only begins after receiving the entire frame
#only forwards valid frames

Older Version: CCNA 2 Chapter 4 Exam Answers v5.1

26. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• It connects multiple IP networks.*
• It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
• It determines the best path to send packets.*
• It manages the VLAN database.
• It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

27. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

• Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.*
• A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
• The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.
• Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.*
• The metric is always determined based on hop count.
• The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.

28. In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)

• hostname
• IP address *
• subnet mask *
• default gateway *
• DNS server address
• DHCP server address

29. Which software is used for a network administrator to make the initial router configuration securely?

• SSH client software
• Telnet client software
• HTTPS client software
• terminal emulation client software*

30. Refer to the exhibit. PC A sends a request to Server B. What IPv4 address is used in the destination field in the packet as the packet leaves PC A?

• 192.168.10.10
• 192.168.11.1
• 192.168.10.1
• 192.168.12.16*

31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?

• IPv6 enable
• clockrate 128000
• end
• no shutdown*

32. What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?​

• The no shutdown command is required to place this interface in an UP state.​
• It is a logical interface internal to the router.*
• Only one loopback interface can be enabled on a router.​
• It is assigned to a physical port and can be connected to other devices.

33. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

• IP addresses*
• MAC addresses
• Layer 1 statuses*
• next-hop addresses
• interface descriptions
• speed and duplex settings

34. A packet moves from a host on one network to a device on a remote network within the same company. If NAT is not performed on the packet, which two items remain unchanged during the transfer of the packet from source to destination? (Choose two.)

• destination IP address*
• source ARP table
• source IP address*
• source MAC address
• destination MAC address
• Layer 2 header

35. Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)

• destination IP address*
• destination MAC address
• source MAC address
• subnet mask*
• network number

36. Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

• nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network
• remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0*
• open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one
• open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out S0/0/0

37. Refer to the exhibit. What does R1 use as the MAC address of the destination when constructing the frame that will go from R1 to Server B?

• If the destination MAC address that corresponds to the IPv4 address is not in the ARP cache, R1 sends an ARP request.*
• The packet is encapsulated into a PPP frame, and R1 adds the PPP destination address to the frame.
• R1 uses the destination MAC address of S1.
• R1 leaves the field blank and forwards the data to the PC.

38. Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?

• Drop the packet.
• Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.*
• Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
• Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.

39. Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? (Choose two.)​

• hop count
• bandwidth*
• jitter
• resiliency
• delay*
• confidentiality

40. What route would have the lowest administrative distance?

• a directly connected network*
• a static route
• a route received through the EIGRP routing protocol
• a route received through the OSPF routing protocol

41. Consider the following routing table entry for R1:
D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0
What is the significance of the Serial0/0/0?

• It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24.*
• It is the R1 interface through which the EIGRP update was learned.
• It is the interface on the final destination router that is directly connected to the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
• It is the interface on the next-hop router when the destination IP address is on the 10.1.1.0/24 network.

42. What are two common types of static routes in routing tables? (Choose two)

• a default static route*
• a built-in static route by IOS
• a static route to a specific network*
• a static route shared between two neighboring routers
• a static route converted from a route that is learned through a dynamic routing protocol

43. What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?

• the ipv6 route ::/0 command
• a static route
• the ip routing command
• the ipv6 unicast-routing command*

44. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description with the routing table entries. (Not all options are used.)

• • Question

• • Answer

45. What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches?

• Routers can be configured with IP addresses. Switches cannot.
• Switches move packets from one physical interface to another. Routers do not.
• Switches use tables of information to determine how to process data traffic. Routers do not.
• Routers support a variety of interface types. Switches typically support Ethernet interfaces.*

46. What type of IPv6 address is required as a minimum on IPv6 enabled interfaces?

• loopback
• unique local
• link-local*
• static
• global unicast

47. When a computer is pinging another computer for the first time, what type of message does it place on the network to determine the MAC address of the other device?

• an ICMP ping
• an ARP request*
• an RFI (Request for Information) message
• a multicast to any Layer 3 devices that are connected to the local network

48. What address changes as a packet travels across multiple Layer 3 Ethernet hops to its final destination?

• source IP
• destination IP
• source Layer 2 address*
• destination port

49. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. What two conclusions can be drawn from the routing table? (Choose two.)

• static route*
• local host route *
• directly connected network*
• route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol
• route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol

50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip route command on R2. What two types of routes are installed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

• a configured default route
• directly connected networks*
• routes that are learned through the OSPF routing protocol
• routes that are learned through the EIGRP routing protocol*
• a configured static route to the network 209.165.200.224

51. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description with the routing table entries. (Not all options are used.)

52. What type of IPv6 address is required as a minimum on IPv6 enabled interfaces?

• static
• global unicast
• link-local*
• loopback
• unique local

53. Match the forwarding characteristic to its type. (Not all options are used.)


172.16.2.2 -> next hop
10.3.0.0 -> destination network
21024000 -> metric
1 -> administrative distance
00:22:15 -> route timestamp
D -> route source protocol

54. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. What two conclusions can be drawn from the routing table? (Choose two.)

Packets that are destined for the network 2001:DB8:ACAD:2::/64 will be forwarded through Fa0/1.
R1 does not know a route to any remote networks.*
The interface Fa0/1 is configured with IPv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::12.*
Packets that are destined for the network 2001:DB8:ACAD:2::54/128 will be forwarded through Fa0/0.
The network FF00::/8 is installed through a static route command.

55. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted field in the line that is displayed from the show ip route command?

• It indicates that this is a directly connected route.
• It indicates that this route has been deleted from the routing table.
• It indicates that this route was learned via EIGRP.*
• It indicates that this is a default route.

56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?

• the MAC address of File_server1
• the MAC address of S2
• the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2
• the MAC address of S1
• the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1*

57. A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?

• The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.*
• No packets with a destination network of 172.16.1.0 have been sent to R1.
• The subnet mask is incorrect for the IPv4 address.
• The configuration needs to be saved first.

58. Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix with an automatically generated interface identifier?

• ipv6 enable
• ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64*
• ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length link-local
• ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length

59. Fill in the blank.
When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the ” routing ” table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.

60. A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

• to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table*
• to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
• to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table
• to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226

61. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. Which two types of routes are displayed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

• route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol
• directly connected network*
• route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol
• static route
• local host route*

62. A network administrator is implementing dynamic routing protocols for a company. Which command can the administrator issue on a router to display the supported routing protocols?

• Router(config)# router ?*
• Router(config)# ip forward-protocol ?
• Router(config)# service ?
• Router(config)# ip route ?

63. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

• It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
• It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*
• It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
• It has an administrative distance of 1.

64. Which two network parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? (Choose Two.)

• jitter
• bandwidth*
• resiliency
• hop count
• delay*
• confidentiality

65. What are two types of static routes in routing tables? (choose two)

• default static route*
• built in static route by IOS
• static route to specific network*
• static route converted from a route that is learned through a dynamic routing protocol.
• static route shared btween two neighboring routers.

66. what is a characteristic of an IPv4 interface on a Cisco IOS router?

• it is assigned to a physical port and can be connected to other devices.
• only one loopback int can be enable on a router
• it is a logical int internal to the router*
• the no shut command is required to place this in UP

More Resources

• CCNA Exam Answers Cisco Learning Network
• CCNA Frequently Asked Questions
• CCNA Exam Questions with Explanation
• CCNA Cyber Ops FAQ