CCNA Cyber Ops FAQ: Fundamentals of Networking Protocols and Networking Devices
Q1. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is concerned with end-to-end communication and offers multiplexing service?
A. Transport
B. Internet
C. Link layer
D. Application
Q2. Which statement is true concerning a link working in Ethernet half-duplex mode?
A. A collision cannot happen.
B. When a collision happens, the two stations immediately retransmit.
C. When a collision happens, the two stations wait for a random time before retransmitting.
D. To avoid a collision, stations wait a random time before transmitting
Q3. What is the main characteristic of a hub?
A. It regenerates the signal and retransmits on all ports.
B. It uses a MAC address table to switch frames.
C. When a packet arrives, the hub looks up the routing table before forwarding the packet.
D. It supports full-duplex mode of transmission.
Q4. Where is the information about ports and device Layer 2 addresses kept in a switch?
A. MAC address table
B. Routing table
C. L2 address table
D. Port table
Q5. Which of the following features are implemented by a wireless LAN controller? (Select all that apply.)
A. Wireless station authentication
B. Quality of Service
C. Channel encryption
D. Transmission and reception of frames
Q6. Which IP header field is used to recognize fragments from the same packet?
A. Identification
B. Fragment Offset
C. Flags
D. Destination Address
Q7. Which protocol is used to request a host MAC address given a known IP address?
A. ARP
B. DHCP
C. ARPv6
D. DNS
Q8. Which type of query is sent from a DNS resolver to a DNS server?
A. Recursive
B. Iterative
C. Simple
D. Type Q query
Q9. How many host IPv4 addresses are possible in a /25 network?
A. 126
B. 128
C. 254
D. 192
follows: 2^7 – 2 = 126. Two addresses need to be removed because they are used for the network ID and broadcast address.
Q10. How many bits can be used for host IPv6 addresses assignment in the 2345::/64 network?
A. 48
B. 64
C. 16
D. 264
Q11. What is SLAAC used for?
A. To provide an IPv6 address to a client
B. To route IPv6 packets
C. To assign a DNS server
D. To provide a MAC address given an IP address
Q12. Which one of these protocols requires a connection to be established before transmitting data?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. OSPF
Q13. What is the TCP window field used for?
A. Error detection
B. Flow control
C. Fragmentation
D. Multiplexing
Q14. At which OSI layer does a router typically operate?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Application
Q15. What are the advantages of a full-duplex transmission mode compared to half-duplex mode? (Select all that apply.)
A. Each station can transmit and receive at the same time.
B. It avoids collisions.
C. It makes use of backofftime.
D. It uses a collision avoidance algorithm to transmit.
Q16. How many broadcast domains are created if three hosts are connected to a Layer 2 switch in full-duplex mode?
A. 4
B. 3
C. None
D. 1
Q17. What is a trunk link used for?
A. To pass multiple virtual LANs
B. To connect more than two switches
C. To enable Spanning Tree Protocol
D. To encapsulate Layer 2 frames
Q18. What is the main difference between a Layer 2 switch and a multilayer switch?
A. A multilayer switch includes Layer 3 functionality.
B. A multilayer switch can be deployed on multiple racks.
C. A Layer 2 switch is faster.
D. A Layer 2 switch uses a MAC table whereas a multilayer switch uses an ARP table.
Q19. What is CAPWAP used for?
A. To enable wireless client mobility through different access points
B. For communication between a client wireless station and an access point
C. For communication between a lightweight access point and a wireless LAN controller
D. For communication between an access point and the distribution service
Q20. Which of the following services are provided by a lightweight access point? (Select all that apply.)
A. Channel encryption
B. Transmission and reception of frames
C. Client authentication
D. Quality of Service
Q21. Which of the following classful networks would allow at least 256 usable IPv4 addresses? (Select all that apply).
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. All of the above
Q22. What would be the maximum length of the network mask for a network that has four hosts?
A. /27
B. /30
C. /24
D. /29
Q23. Which routing protocol exchanges link state information?
A. RIPv2
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Q24. What is an advantage of using OSPF instead ofRIPv2?
A. It does not have the problem of count to infinity.
B. OSPF has a higher hop-count value.
C. OSPF includes bandwidth information in the distance vector.
D. OSPF uses DUAL for optimal shortest path calculation.
Q25. What are two ways the IPv6 address 2345:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0100:1111 can be written?
A. 2345:0:0:0:0:0:0100:1111
B. 2345::1::1
C. 2345::0100:1111
D. 2345::1:1111
Q26. In IPv6, what is used to replace ARP?
A. ARPv6
B. DHCPv6
C. NDP
D. Route Advertisement Protocol
Q27. What would be the IPv6 address of a host using SLAAC with 2345::/64 as a network prefix and MAC address of0300.1111.2222?
A. 2345::100:11FF:FE11:2222
B. 2345:0:0:0:0300:11FF:FE11:2222
C. 2345:0:0:0:FFFE:0300:1111:2222
D. 2345::0300:11FF:FE11:2222
Q28. What is a DNS iterative query used for?
A. It is sent from a DNS server to other servers to resolve a domain.
B. It is sent from a DNS resolver to the backup DNS server.
C. It is sent from a DNS server to the DNS client.
D. It is sent from a client machine to a DNS resolver
Q29. Which TCP header flag is used by TCP to establish a connection?
A. URG
B. SYN
C. PSH
D. RST
Q30. What information is included in a network socket? (Select all that apply.)
A. Protocol
B. IP address
C. Port
D. MAC address
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