CCDA FAQ: Network Structure Models

CCDA FAQ: Network Structure Models

Q1. In the hierarchical network model, which layer is responsible for fast transport?
a. Network
b. Core
c. Distribution
d. Access

Q2. Which Enterprise Architecture model component interfaces with the service provider (SP)?
a. Campus infrastructure
b. Access layer
c. Enterprise edge
d. Edge distribution

Q3. In the hierarchical network model, at which layer do security filtering, address aggregation, and media translation occur?
a. Network
b. Core
c. Distribution
d. Access

Q4. Which of the following is/are method(s) of workstation-to-router redundancy in the access layer?
a. AppleTalk Address Resolution Protocol (AARP)
b. Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)
c. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
d. Answers B and C
e. Answers A, B, and C

Q5. The network-management module has tie-ins to which component(s)?
a. Campus infrastructure
b. Server farm
c. Enterprise edge
d. SP edge
e. Answers a and b
f. Answers a, b, and c
g. Answers a, b, c, and d

Q6. Which of the following is an SP edge module in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model?
a. Public switched telephone network (PSTN) service
b. Edge distribution
c. Server farm
d. Core layer

Q7. In which module would you place Cisco Unified Communications Manager (CUCM)?
a. Campus core
b. E-commerce
c. Server farm
d. Edge distribution farm

Q8. High availability, port security, and rate limiting are functions of which hierarchical layer?
a. Network
b. Core
c. Distribution
d. Access

Q9. True or false: The core layer of the hierarchical model does security filtering and media translation.

Q10. True or false: The access layer provides high availability and port security.

Q11. You add Communications Manager to the network as part of a Voice over IP (VoIP) solution. In which submodule of the Enterprise Architecture model should you place Communications Manager?

Q12. True or false: HSRP provides router redundancy.

Q13. Which enterprise edge submodule connects to an ISP?

Q14. List the six modules of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model for network design.

Q15. True or false: In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model, the network management submodule does not manage the SP edge.

Q16. True or false: You can implement a full-mesh network to increase redundancy and reduce a WAN’s costs.

Q17. How many links are required for a full mesh of six sites?

Q18. List and describe four options for multihoming to the SP between the Enterprise Edge and the SP Edge. Which option provides the most redundancy?

Q19. To what enterprise edge submodule does the SP Edge Internet submodule connect?

Q20. What are four benefits of hierarchical network design?

Q21. In an IP telephony network, in which submodule or layer are the IP phones and CUCM servers located?

Q22. Match the redundant model with its description:
i. Workstation-router redundancy
ii. Server redundancy
iii. Route redundancy
iv. Media redundancy
a. Cheap when implemented in the LAN and critical for the WAN
b. Provides load balancing
c. Host has multiple gateways
d. Data is replicated

Q23. True or false: Small to medium campus networks must always implement three layers of hierarchical design.

Q24. How many full-mesh links do you need for a network with ten routers?

Q25. Which layer provides routing between VLANs and security filtering?
a. Access layer
b. Distribution layer
c. Enterprise edge
d. WAN module

Q26. List the four modules of the enterprise edge area.

Q27. List the three submodules of the SP edge.

Q28. List the components of the Internet edge.

Q29. Which submodule contains firewalls, VPN concentrators, and ASAs?
a. WAN
b. VPN/remote access
c. Internet
d. Server farm

Q30. Which of the following describe the access layer? (Select two.)
a. High-speed data transport
b. Applies network policies
c. Performs network aggregation
d. Concentrates user access
e. Provides PoE
f. Avoids data manipulation

Q31. Which of the following describe the distribution layer? (Select two.)
a. High-speed data transport
b. Applies network policies
c. Performs network aggregation
d. Concentrates user access
e. Provides PoE
f. Avoids data manipulation

Q32. Which of the following describe the core layer? (Select two.)
a. High-speed data transport
b. Applies network policies
c. Performs network aggregation
d. Concentrates user access
e. Provides PoE
f. Avoids data manipulation

Q33. Which campus submodule connects to the enterprise edge module?
a. SP edge
b. WAN submodule
c. Building distribution
d. Campus core
e. Enterprise branch
f. Enterprise data center

Q34. Which remote module connects to the enterprise via the Internet or WAN submodules and contains a small LAN switch for users?
a. SP edge
b. WAN submodule
c. Building distribution
d. Campus core
e. Enterprise branch
f. Enterprise data center

Q35. Which three types of servers are placed in the e-commerce submodule?
a. Web
b. Application
c. Database
d. Intranet
e. Internet
f. Public share

Use Below Figure to answer questions 36–41.

Q36. Which is the campus core layer?

Q37. Which is the enterprise edge?

Q38. Which is the campus access layer?

Q39. Which is the enterprise edge distribution?

Q40. Which is the campus distribution layer?

Q41. Which is the campus data center?

Q42. Which solution supports the enterprise teleworker?
a. IP telephony
b. Enterprise campus
c. Cisco virtual office
d. SP edge
e. Hierarchical design
f. Data Center 3.0

Q43. Which are two benefits of using a modular approach?
a. Simplifies the network design
b. Reduces the amount of network traffic on the network
c. Often reduces the cost and complexity of the network
d. Makes the network simple by using full mesh topologies

Q44. Which three modules provide infrastructure for remote users? (Select three.)
a. Teleworker module
b. WAN module
c. Enterprise branch module
d. Campus module
e. Enterprise data center
f. Core, distribution, access layers

Q45. Which are borderless networks infrastructure services? (Select three.)
a. IP telephony
b. Security
c. QoS
d. SP edge
e. High availability
f. Routing

Q46. Which module contains devices that supports AAA and stores passwords?
a. WAN module
b. VPN module
c. Server farm module
d. Internet connectivity module
e. SP edge
f. TACACS

Q47. Which topology is best used for connectivity in the building distribution layer?
a. Full mesh
b. Partial mesh
c. Hub and spoke
d. Dual ring
e. EthernetChannel

Q48. What are two ways that wireless access points are used? (Choose two.)
a. Function as a hub for wireless end devices
b. Connect to the enterprise network
c. Function as a Layer 3 switch for wireless end devices
d. Provide physical connectivity for wireless end devices
e. Filter out interference from microwave devices

Q49. In which ways does application network services helps resolve application issues?
a. It can compress, cache, and optimize content.
b. Optimizes web streams which can reduce latency and offload the web server.
c. Multiple data centers increases productivity.
d. Improves application response times by using faster servers.

Q50. Which are key features of the distribution layer?
a. Aggregates access layer switches
b. Provides a routing boundary between access and core layers
c. Provides connectivity to end devices
d. Provides fast switching
e. Provides transport to the enterprise edge
f. Provides VPN termination

Q51. Which Cisco solution allows a pair of switches to act as a single logical switch?
a. HSRP
b. VSS
c. STP
d. GLB

Q52. Which module or layer connects the server layer to the enterprise edge?
a. Campus distribution layer
b. Campus data center access layer
c. Campus core layer
d. Campus MAN module
e. WAN module
f. Internet connectivity module

Q53. Which server type is used in the Internet connectivity module?
a. Corporate
b. Private
c. Public
d. Internal
e. Database
f. Application

Q54. Which server types are used in the e-commerce module for users running applications and storing data? (Select three.)
a. Corporate
b. Private
c. Public
d. Internet
e. Database
f. Application
g. Web

Q55. Based on Figure, and assuming that devices may be in more than one layer, list which devices are in each layer.

Access layer:
Distribution layer:
Core:

Use Below Figure 2-21 to answer questions 56–58.

Q56. Which section(s) belong to the core layer?

Q57. Which section(s) belong to the distribution layer?

Q58. Which section(s) belong to the access layer?

Q59. Which Cisco tool enables you to analyze interface statistics, review routing table sizes, and get a performance snapshot of the current network?

Q60. Identify three categories that are considered to be administrative data to help characterize the customer’s network.

Q61. What product can be used as a traffic analysis and protocol analysis tool?

Q62. What feature of the network design are you trying to include when you discuss future business goals with your customer?

Q63. During your characterization of the network, you realize that WAN implementations and LAN networks are managed by different groups. During which data collection stage would you note this information?

Q64. Broadcast/multicast behavior, supported frame sizes, flow control, and windowing are all examples of characterizing what type of behavior?

Q65. What is the maximum number of recommended workstations that a flat AppleTalk network could support?

Q66. True or False: Using the largest frame size that is supported by a medium has a negative impact on network performance.

Q67. Identify the port used by a protocol such as SMTP.

Q68. What is the purpose in documenting response time to understand and identify performance issues?

Q69. True or False: Gathering budget information and resource availability for a project is a part of the process in which you are defining the manageability requirements.

Q70. What is the maximum number of buffer misses a Cisco router can have in an hour?

Q71. After adding the new print server to the network, you see that the workstations are experiencing performance issues. What is a likely cause of this problem?

Q72. What tool could you use to verify your answer to question #1?

Q73. The customer wants to determine the maximum number of multimedia workstations that should populate a segment. What information do you need to request to find out an approximate number?

Q74. Which network devices are used in creating separate segments to decrease workstation broadcasts?

Q75. During the planning stage, the customer wants a 30 percent improvement on the response his users get from the database. During which phase of extracting the new customer requirements would you address this information?

Q76. The customer is concerned about the Token Ring traffic on his network and wants to prove that the Token Ring network must be upgraded. What is your recommendation based on finding out that the Token Ring segment has more than 60 percent utilization?

Q77. Which Cisco IOS command would you use to determine if there were any output queue drops?

Q78. When helping to determine the network’s health, would having 25 percent of multicasts on one segment be considered healthy?

Q79. What is the saturation threshold for WAN links?

Q80. What tool would you use to help monitor the switching traffic?