CCDA FAQ: Enterprise LAN Design

CCDA FAQ: Enterprise LAN Design

Q1. What device filters broadcasts?
a. Layer 2 switch
b. Hub
c. Layer 3 switch
d. Router
e. A and C
f. C and D
g. A, C, and D

Answer: F. Routers and Layer 3 switches are Layer 3 devices that control and filter network broadcasts.

Q2. What is the maximum segment distance for Fast Ethernet over unshielded twistedpair (UTP)?
a. 100 feet
b. 500 feet
c. 100 meters
d. 285 feet

Answer: C. The maximum distance of 100BASE-T is 100 meters.

Q3. What device limits the collision domain?
a. Layer 2 switch
b. Hub
c. Layer 3 switch
d. Router
e. A and C
f. C and D
g. A, C, and D

Answer: G. Every port of a Layer 2 switch, Layer 3 switch, or LAN port on a router is a collision domain.

Q4. The summarization of routes is a best practice at which layer?
a. Access layer
b. Distribution layer
c. Core layer
d. WAN layer

Answer: B. Routes are summarized at the distribution layer.

Q5. What type of LAN switches are preferred in the campus backbone of an enterprise network?
a. Layer 2 switches
b. Layer 3 switches
c. Layer 3 hubs
d. Hubs

Answer: B. Layer 3 switches are recommended for the backbone of campus networks.

Q6. Two workstations are located on separate VLANs. They exchange data directly. What type of application is this?
a. Client/server
b. Client-peer
c. Peer-peer
d. Client-enterprise

Answer: C. This is a peer-to-peer application.

Q7. Which type of cable is the best solution in terms of cost for connecting an access switch to the distribution layer requiring 140 meters?
a. UTP
b. Copper
c. Multimode fiber
d. Single-mode fiber

Answer: C. Multimode fiber provides a cost-effective solution for that distance. Single-mode fiber is more expensive. UTP cannot go more than 100 meters.

Q8. Why is switching preferred over shared segments?
a. Shared segments provide a collision domain for each host.
b. Switched segments provide a collision domain for each host.
c. Shared segments provide a broadcast domain for each host.
d. Switched segments provide a broadcast domain for each host.

Answer: B. Each port on a switch is a separate collision or bandwidth domain. All ports on a hub share the same bandwidth domain.

Q9. True or false: Layer 2 switches control network broadcasts.

Answer: False. Layer 2 switches limit only the collision domain.

Q10. What technology can you use to limit multicasts at Layer 2?

Answer: CGMP

Q11. True or false: Packet marking is also called coloring.

Answer: True

Q12. True or false: Usually, the distribution and core layers are collapsed in medium-size networks.

Answer: True

Q13. What are two methods to mark frames to provide CoS?

Answer: Inter-Switch Link (ISL) and IEEE 802.1p/802.1Q

Q14. Which of the following is an example of a peer-to-peer application?
a. IP phone call
b. Client accessing file server
c. Web access
d. Using a local server on the same segment

Answer: A. IP phone-to-IP phone communication is an example of peer-to-peer communication.

Q15. What primary design factors affect the design of a campus network? (Select three.)
a. Environmental characteristics
b. Number of file servers
c. Infrastructure devices
d. Fiber and UTP characteristics
e. Network applications
f. Windows, Linux, and mainframe operating systems

Answer: A, C, and E. Network applications, infrastructure devices, and environmental characteristics affect network design.

Q16. You need to connect a building access switch to the distribution switch. The cable distance is 135 m. What type of cable do you recommend?
a. UTP
b. Coaxial cable
c. Multimode fiber
d. Single-mode fiber

Answer: C. Multimode fiber provides the necessary connectivity at the required distance. UTP can reach only 100 m. Single-mode fiber is more expensive.

Q17. Which layer of the campus network corresponds to the data center aggregation layer?
a. Core layer
b. Distribution layer
c. Access layer
d. Server farm

Answer: B. The DC aggregation layer is similar to the campus distribution layer.

Q18. Which of the following is an access layer best practice?
a. Reduce switch peering and routing
b. Use HSRP and summarize routes
c. Disable trunking and use RPVST+
d. Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers

Answer: C. Disabling trunking on host ports and using RPVST+ are best practices at the access layer.

Q19. Which of the following is a distribution layer best practice?
a. Reduce switch peering and routing
b. Use HSRP and summarize routes
c. Disable trunking and use RPVST+
d. Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers

Answer: B. The use of HSRP and summarization of routes are best practices in the distribution layer.

Q20. Which of the following is a core layer best practice?
a. Reduce switch peering and routing
b. Use HSRP and summarize routes
c. Disable trunking and use RPVST+
d. Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers

Answer: A. Best practices for the core is the use of triangle connections to reduce switch peering and use routing to prevent network loops.

Q21. Which of the following is a DC aggregation layer best practice?
a. Reduce switch peering and routing
b. Use HSRP and summarize routes
c. Disable trunking and use RPVST+
d. Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers

Answer: D. Load balancers, SSL offloading, firewalls, and intrusion detection devices are deployed in the DC aggregation layer.

Q22. Which of the following are threats to the edge distribution?
a. IP spoofing
b. Network discovery
c. Packet-capture devices
d. All of the above

Answer: D. All are threats to the enterprise edge distribution.

Q23. An enterprise network has grown to multiple buildings supporting multiple departments. Clients access servers that are in local and other buildings. The company security assessment has identified policies that need to be applied. What do you recommend?
a. Move all departments to a single building to prevent unauthorized access.
b. Move all servers to one of the LAN client segments.
c. Move all servers to a server farm segment that is separate from client LANs.
d. Move all servers to the building distribution switches.

Answer: C. Create a server farm that allows the enforcement of security policies.

Q24. Link redundancy and infrastructure services are design considerations for which layers?
a. Core layer
b. Distribution layer
c. Access layer
d. All of the above

Answer: B. These are design considerations for the distribution layer.

Q25. Which of the following are server connectivity methods in the server farm?
a. Single NIC
b. EtherChannel
c. Content switch
d. All of the above

Answer: D. All are server connectivity options.

Q26. What is the recommended method to connect the distribution switches to the core?
a. Redundant triangle links
b. Redundant cross-connect links
c. Redundant Layer 3 squares
d. Redundant Layer 2 links

Answer: A. The core and the distribution should be connected using redundant Layer 3 triangular links.

Q27. A campus network of four buildings is experiencing performance problems. Each building contains 400 to 600 devices, all in one IP subnet. The buildings are connected in a hub-and-spoke configuration back to building 1 using Gigabit Ethernet with multimode fiber. All servers are located in building 1. What do you recommend to improve performance?
a. Connect all buildings in a ring topology.
b. Implement multiple VLANs in each building.
c. Move servers to the buildings.
d. Use single-mode fiber to make the Gigabit Ethernet links faster.

Answer: B. The building subnets are too large and should be further segmented to reduce the broadcast domain.

Q28. What of the following is true about data link layer broadcasts?
a. Not controlled by routers
b. Not forwarded by routers
c. Not forwarded by switches
d. Not controlled by VLANs

Answer: B. Broadcasts are not forwarded by routers and are controlled by VLANs.

Q29. Match each LAN medium with its original physical specification.
i. Fast Ethernet
ii. Gigabit Ethernet
iii. WLAN
iv. Token Ring
v. 10 Gigabit Ethernet
a. IEEE 802.3ab
b. IEEE 802.11b
c. IEEE 802.3u
d. IEEE 802.3ae
e. IEEE 802.5

Answer: = C, ii = A, iii = B, iv = E, v = D

Q30. True or false: Layer 3 switches bound Layer 2 collision and broadcast domains.

Answer:

 

Q31. Match each LAN device type with its description.
i. Hub
ii. Bridge
iii. Switch
iv. Layer 3 switch
v. Router
a. Legacy device that connects two data link layer segments
b. Network layer device that forwards packets to serial interfaces connected to the WAN
c. High-speed device that forwards frames between two or more data link layer segments
d. High-speed device that bounds data link layer broadcast domains
e. Device that amplifies the signal between connected segments

Answer: i = E, ii = A, iii = C, iv = D, v = B

Q32. Match each application type with its description.
i. Peer to peer
ii. Client-local server
iii. Client/server farm
iv. Client-enterprise edge
a. Server on the same segment
b. IM
c. Web access
d. Client accesses database server

Answer: i = B, ii = A, iii = D, iv = C

Q33. Match each transmission medium with its upper-limit distance.
i. UTP
ii. Wireless
iii. Single-mode fiber
iv. Multimode fiber
a. 2 km
b. 100 m
c. 90 km
d. 500 m

Answer: i = B, ii = D, iii = C, iv = A

Q34. True or false: IP phones and LAN switches can reassign a frame’s CoS bits.

Answer: True. IP phones reclassify incoming frames from the PC. Switches can accept or reclassify incoming frames.

Q35. Name two ways to reduce multicast traffic in the access layer.

Answer: CGMP and IGMP snooping control multicast traffic at Layer 2. The switch and local router exchange CGMP messages. With IGMP snooping, the switch listens to IGMP messages between the host and the router.

Q36. What are two VLAN methods you can use to carry marking CoS on frames?

Answer: ISL and IEEE 802.1p/Q are two methods for CoS. ISL was created by Cisco and uses an external tag that contains 3 bits for marking. IEEE 802.1p specifies 3 bits for marking that is carried in the internal tag of IEEE 802.1q. The IEEE 802.1p specification is not included in the IEEE 802.1D-1998 standard.

Q37. True or false: You can configure both CGMP and IGMP snooping in mixed Cisco switch and non-Cisco router environments.

Answer: False. You can configure the CGMP only if both the router and switch are Cisco devices. IGMP snooping can be configured in mixed environments.

Use Below Figure to answer questions 38-43

Q38. What medium do you recommend for the campus LAN backbone?

Answer: The campus backbone should have high-speed links. Recommend Gigabit Ethernet links.

Q39. The workstations send frames with the DSCP set to EF. What should the IP phones do so that the network gives preference to VoIP traffic over data traffic?

Answer: The IP phones should remap the workstation traffic to a value less than the value assigned to voice. Typically, it is recommended that you configure the IP phone to set the DSCP to EF for VoIP bearer traffic.

Q40. If the Layer 2 switches in Building A cannot look at CoS and ToS fields, where should these fields be inspected for acceptance or reclassification: in the building Layer 3 switches or in the backbone Layer 3 switches?

Answer: Inspect them at the Layer 3 switches in Building A. Packets should be marked and accepted as close as possible to the source.

Q41. Does the network have redundant access to the WAN?

Answer: No. There is no redundancy to the WAN module. A separate link to another building would provide that redundancy.

Q42. Does the network have redundant access to the Internet?

Answer: No. There is no redundancy to the Internet module. A separate link from another building would provide that redundancy.

Q43. Does Figure use recommended devices for networks designed using the Enterprise Architecture model?

Answer: Yes. The network uses Layer 2 switches at the building-access layer and Layer 3 switches at the building distribution and campus backbone layers.

Q44. Which are environmental characteristics? (Select three.)
a. Transmission media characteristics
b. Application characteristics
c. Distribution of network nodes
d. Operating system used
e. Remote-site connectivity requirements

Answer: A, C, and E

Q45. Which network application type is most stringent on the network resources?
a. Peer to peer
b. Client to local server
c. Client to server farm
d. Client to enterprise edge

Answer: C

Q46. An application used by some users in a department generates significant amounts of bandwidth. Which is a best design choice?
a. Rewrite the application to reduce bandwidth.
b. Use Gigabit Ethernet connections for those users.
c. Put the application users into a separate broadcast domain.
d. Add several switches and divide the users into the two.

Answer: C

Q47. Users access servers located on a server VLAN and servers located in departmental VLANs. Users are located in the departmental VLAN. What is the expected traffic flow from users to servers?
a. Most traffic is local.
b. All traffic requires multilayer switching.
c. There is no need for multilayer switching.
d. Most of the traffic will have to be multilayer switched.

Answer: D

Q48. Company departments are located across several buildings? These departments use several common servers. Network policy and security are important. Where should servers be placed?
a. Within all department buildings and duplicate the common servers in each building.
b. Connect the common servers to the campus core.
c. Use a server farm.
d. Connect the servers to the distribution layer.

Answer: C

Q49. A large company has a campus core. What is the best practice for the core campus network?
a. Use triangles.
b. Use squares.
c. Use rectangles.
d. Use point-to-point mesh.

Answer: A. Use redundant triangle topology between distribution and core layers.

Q50. A company has five floors. It has Layer 2 switches in each floor with servers. They plan move servers to a new computer room and create a server farm. What should they use?
a. Replace all Layer 2 switches with Layer 3 switches.
b. Connect the Layer 2 switches to a Layer 3 switch in the computer room.
c. Connect the Layer 2 switches to a new Layer 2 switch in the computer room.
d. Connect the Layer 2 switches to each other.

Answer: B

Q51. A Fast Ethernet uplink is running at 80 percent utilization. Business-critical applications are used. What can be used to minimize packet delay and loss?
a. Implement QoS with classification and policing in the distribution layer.
b. Add additional VLANs so that the business applications are used on PCs on that VLAN.
c. Perform packet bit rewrite in the distribution switches.
d. Classify users in the access with different priority bits.

Answer: A

Q52. Which are four best practices used in the access layer?
a. Disable trunking in host ports.
b. Limit VLANS to one closet.
c. Use PVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.
d. Enable trunking on host ports.
e. Use VLAN spanning to speed convergence of STP.
f. Use VTP Server mode in hierarchical networks.
g. Use VTP Transparent mode in hierarchical networks.
h. Use RPVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.

Answer: A, B, G, and H

Q53. Which are three best practices used in the distribution layer?
a. Use HSRP or GLBP.
b. Provide fast transport.
c. Use Layer 3 routing protocols to the core.
d. Use Layer 2 routing protocols to the core.
e. Summarize routes to the core layer.
f. Summarize routes to the access layer.

Answer: A, C, and E

Q54. Which are four best practices used in the distribution layer?
a. Disable trunking in host ports.
b. Limit VLANS to one closet.
c. Use HSRP.
d. Use GLBP.
e. Use VLAN spanning to speed convergence of STP.
f. Use Layer 3 routing to the core.
g. Summarize routes.
h. Use RPVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.

Answer: C, D, F, and G

Q55. Which are three best practices used in the core layer?
a. Use routing with no Layer 2 loops.
b. Limit VLANS to one closet.
c. Use HSRP.
d. Use GLBP.
e. Use Layer 3 switches with fast forwarding.
f. Use Layer 3 routing to the core.
g. Use two equal-cost paths to every destination network.
h. Use RPVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.

Answer: A, E, and G

Q56. Match each enterprise campus component with its description.
i. Campus infrastructure
ii. Server farm
iii. Edge distribution
a. Consists of backbone, building-distribution, and building-access modules
b. Connects the campus backbone to the Enterprise Edge
c. Provides redundancy access to the servers

Answer: i = A, ii = C, iii = B

Q57. Why is LAN switching used more than shared LAN technology? (Select two.)
a. Shared LANs do not consume all available bandwidth.
b. Switched LANs offer increased throughput.
c. Switched LANs allow two or more ports to communicate simultaneously.
d. Switched LANs forward frames to all ports simultaneously.

Answer: B and C

 

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James Palmer

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