CCNP Switch FAQ : Implementing Inter-VLAN Routing
Q1. True or False: An SVI is a physical Layer 3 interface, whereas a routed port is a virtual Layer 3 interface.
Q2. True or False: Multilayer switches generally outperform routers of multiple Ethernet interfaces.
Q3. True or False: A router can forward DHCP requests across VLAN or IP subnet boundaries by using the DHCP relay agent feature.
Questions 4 and 5 are based on the configuration in Example 4-16.
Example 4-16. Configuration for Questions 4 and 5
Q4. Based on Example 4-16, can the hosts that reside in VLAN 20 communicate with hosts on VLAN 10 if their default gateway is set to 10.2.1.1?
a. Yes, if the hosts on VLAN 10 have their default gateway set to 10.1.1.1.
b. No, the default gateway of the hosts that reside in VLAN 20 should be set to 10.1.1.1.
c. Yes, but there is no need to define default gateways.
d. No, because the routing protocol or static routes are not defined.
Q5. Based on Example 4-16, if the hosts that reside on VLAN 10 have their default gateway defined as 10.1.1.1 and ICMP can ping 10.2.1.1 but not a host that resides in VLAN 20, what could be a possible reason?
a. Hosts on VLAN 10 are not configured with the correct default gateway.
b. Hosts on VLAN 20 are not configured with the correct default gateway.
c. The routing protocol or static routes are not defined on the Layer 3 switch.
d. VLAN 20 is not defined in the switch database.
Q6. When performing router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing, a router interface is subdivided into what?
a. VLAN subinterfaces
b. 802.1q subinterfaces
c. Layer 3 subinterfaces
d. EtherChannel subinterfaces
Q7. Which two commands should be used to configure a router and switch to identify VLAN 10 as the native VLAN on an 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
a. encapsulation dot1q vlan 10 native
b. encapsulation dot1q 10 native
c. encapsulation dot1q native vlan 10
d. switchport trunk dot1q native vlan 10
e. switchport mode trunk dot1q vlan 10 native
f. switchport trunk native vlan 10
Q8. Place the following five items in the proper order of processing (Note: Not all steps are included.)
a. If necessary, an input router ACL check is performed.
b. The Layer 2 and Layer 3 header are rewritten.
c. The Layer 2 forwarding engine forwards the frame.
d. The Layer 2 engine performs the input VLAN ACL lookup.
e. The destination IP address is compared against the Layer 3 forwarding table for the longest match.
Q9. Which of the following are NOT reasons for configuring an SVI? (Choose two.)
a. To provide fallback bridging if it is required for nonroutable protocols
b. To provide Layer 3 IP connectivity to the switch
c. To provide failover if the primary SVI for a VLAN fails
d. To provide a gateway for a VLAN so that traffic can be routed into or out of that VLAN
e. To provide connectivity to an external router for inter-VLAN routing
Q10. On which of the following ports would a network engineer be most likely to use the autostate exclude command?
a. An 802.1Q trunk port connected to an external router
b. A monitoring port connected to an intrusion prevention sensor
c. The secondary SVI for a VLAN
d. A routed interface on a multilayer switch
e. All of the above
Q11. When must the command ip routing be used when configuring SVIs on a multilayer switch?
a. When an SVI is being used to provide IP connectivity to the switch itself for a given VLAN.
b. When the SVI is being configured as part of a Layer 2 EtherChannel bundle.
c. When EIGRP is not being used as a routing protocol.
d. When an SVI is being used to provide Layer 3 IP forwarding services to its assigned VLAN.
e. Never; IP routing is enabled by default on a multilayer switch.
Q12. How is a port on a multilayer switch configured as a routed port?
a. By configuring an IP address and subnet mask on the port
b. By using the command switchport mode routed
c. By removing the Layer 2 switching capability of the switch port
d. By using the command no switchport mode
Q13. Which two of the following are Layer 3 switching modes on a Cisco Catalyst multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
a. Fast switching
b. Topology-based switching
c. CEF switching
d. Rapid switching
e. Route caching
f. Distributed fast switching
Q14. What are the names of the two hardware tables created by CEF? (Choose two.)
a. Cisco Express Forwarding Table
b. Forwarding Information Table
c. Adjacency Table
d. Forwarding Information Base
e. Link-State Table
Q15. When a multilayer switch connects directly to several hosts, the FIB table on the switch maintains a prefix for the subnet rather than for the individual host prefixes. This adjacency is known as which of the following?
a. Punt adjacency
b. Subnet adjacency
c. Connected adjacency
d. Glean adjacency
e. Host-route adjacency
Q16. Which of the following is the solution if part of an adjacency is an “incomplete” or a “drop” adjacency?
a. Troubleshoot routing protocols to ensure that the routing table is properly populated.
b. Verify that the IP host exists on a media that is accessible to the host that is trying to ARP resolve.
c. Debug CEF to observe all messages for CEF operations.
d. Disable and then reenable CEF on the multilayer switch.
e. Check that unsupported software features have not been enabled.
Q17. What command is used on Cisco IOS switches to change the interface from a Layer 3 interface to a Layer 2 interface?
a. switchport mode access
b. ip routing
d. switchport mode trunk
Q18. Which Cisco IOS command enables IP routing on a Catalyst switch?
a. ip routing
b. interface vlan-id
c. ip address n.n.n.n mask
d. router ip_routing_protocol
Q19. What is the function of a DHCP relay agent?
Q20. Which of the following UDP protocols are forwarded in addition to DHCP when a Layer 3 interface is configured with the ip helper-address command? (Select all that apply.)
a. Mobile IP